Question #1: Where would I go to find out how many times particular words are used in the Bible?
Response #1: I'm not precisely sure if this question really has a definitive answer, because it depends what you mean by "in the Bible". For example, the answer will be different if you are talking about the King James English version, or the New International English version (or any other version), or whether you are talking about the original Greek, Hebrew and Aramaic. When it comes to translating from the original languages, the problem is complicated by the obvious fact that translation is more of an art than a science since there are very really exact equivalents between languages. To take perhaps the basic of words as an example, the most common word for "and" in Hebrew is different in a number of respects from the most common word for "and" in Greek. In each word, a number of other translations are often not only desirable but even necessary for a translation to be intelligible. In Biblical Hebrew, the word is often used in a unique grammatical construction (i.e., the “waw conjunctive”), while in Greek, there are actually a pair of words for "and", both of which are most normally translated by the English word "and" or “but” (and that is matter of interpretation), and one of them may bear the additional meanings of "also" or "even" (depending on the context). So how would one handle this issue for a word count? Clearly, it all depends on your parameters. There is also the problem of textual variation. Even in the original languages, the best you could say is that there are X occurrences of the word Y according to the 26th edition of Nestle or the like (most biblical scholars who do any textual criticism would not agree with any edition 100%). Finally, since in Greek and Hebrew we are dealing with highly inflected languages (i.e., languages wherein the number of forms of each verb and noun et al. are, unlike English, numerous), there is also the problem of forms versus discrete words. For example, are "go" and "went" different words according to the questioner's parameters? They really come from the same root word in English (also, "goes" is spelled differently but is merely the third singular form of "go"). I would say these are the same, although they will show up as different in any concordance or computer search (in any language).
Having said all this, there are a couple of ways you could go to get some sort of an answer, even if it has to be qualified by the above:
1) You could get an English concordance (or a Greek or Hebrew one for that matter), and actually do a count of the longer entries. Strong's is the best known and most widely available for the KJV, and there are concordances for all of the major versions (these are very possibly available in your library). This could be very laborious.
2) You could get a computerized version of the Bible. Just about any basic "Bible on disk" will allow you to do a word count or a word search and count. This would be quicker that #1, but it is possible that the program will not be able to automatically find the most common words for you in advance. Some claim to be able to do this, however.
3) There are a number of internet sites which give a run down of statistics like this from a variety of methodologies (since they are potentially working from a different set of parameters). Typing in the following combination at "Google" yields some interesting links: "bible occurrence frequency word words".
So it is very possible that you can find this info on-line at one of these or at some of the other links the above search returned. Just keep in mind that the exact count is entirely dependent upon the assumptions you make about what constitutes a “word” and in what language and what text.
I do want to encourage you to keep on studying your Bible. One can learn a lot by doing the sort of study you are doing, despite the difficulties. The Bible is a unique gift from God Himself, and the blessing of being able to study it cannot be compared to anything else in this life, because only through His Word do we learn more about Him and His Son our dear Lord Jesus Christ. We may not always get the precise answers we were looking for when sit down to learn something about scripture, but the joy of finding unexpected treasure in the pages of the Word can be a daily experience for all who set themselves to seek the Lord in faith and diligence.
Hope this is of some help,
Yours in Jesus Christ,
Could you be so kind as to render an explanation of Rev. 1:7, especially the phrase 'those that pierced him'. Does this mean the Roman soldiers who pierced Christ with a spear or does it have a greater symbolic meaning? Thank you.
Yes indeed, this passage looks forward to the restoration of Israel when they witness the Messiah's return at the second advent, an event that will be visible worldwide. Here is what I have written about this passage in part 1 of the Coming Tribulation series:
Every eye will see Him, even those who pierced Him: The dramatic return of our Lord will be visible to everyone on earth. Singled out for special mention are His kindred people, Israel, in the phrase "those who pierced Him", referring to the episode at the cross as predicted by Zechariah (compare Jn.19:34-37 with Zech.12:10). This is a description of an instantaneous repentance and conversion of the Jews alive at the return of the Messiah as explained by the apostle Paul (Rom.9-11): the "hardness in part" that has characterized the majority of the descendants of Abraham since 1st Advent will dissolve instantly upon the Messiah's return. The return of many Jews to the Lord during the Tribulation, the ministry of the 144,000, and the purging that follows Christ's return, all subjects requiring detailed explanation (forthcoming in future installments of this series), are omitted here (both in the text of Revelation as well as our coverage), since the purpose of this reference is akin to that of the previous phrase, namely, to emphasize the final victory of the Messiah and the completion of the process of restoration when Israel's heart is once more united to the Lord at His return (Acts 3:21; cf. Ezek.36:27; 39:25-26; Mal.4:6; Matt.17:11; Mk.9:12; Acts 1:6).(note 46: For the combination of the gentiles with Israel in the Church of Christ, see the discussion in part 5 of the Satanic Rebellion series, "Judgment, Restoration and Replacement", section II.8.b.i-iv. See section IV of the same study for the specific issue of "restoration" in God's plan. )
Brothers, I do not want you to be ignorant of this mystery (and so think more of yourselves than you should): hardness has come over a part of Israel until the time when the fullness of the gentiles has come in [to the family of God]. And it is in this [following] way that all Israel will be saved just as it is written: The Deliverer will come from Zion. He will expel ungodliness from Jacob. And this will be My covenant with them when I take away their sins. Romans 11:25-27
Here is the link for this section: CT#1: Revelation 1:1-7 (see also Ps.22:16). For the ministry of the 144,000 (referenced in the text above), see "The Sealing of the 144,000" in CT#2B, and "The Two Witnesses" in CT#3A. And please see also: The Events of the Crucifixion (in BB 4A)
Hope this is helpful,
Yours in the Lord who died for the sins of all, Jesus Christ the Righteous,
If some one were to say to you that they see can see and consult with deceased spirits, what would your response be? Is it possible to consult with the deceased in heaven or hades? I believe that if someone can consult with deceased spirits this is not a godly thing, they are likely consulting with fallen angels. Saying that, then they should not be able to consult with the deceased in heaven.
You are absolutely correct. There is no way for a human being to see beyond this world into the next except with the eyes of faith. Outside of our Lord, John and Paul were allowed to see things in paradise, but, as apostles of the Lamb and writers of the scripture, their experiences are unique (and, anyway, this is different from what you ask). Outside of clearly satanic and anti-God activity (cf. Lev.19:31; Is.8:19; cf. Ex.22:18; Lev.20:6; Deut.18:9-13), the only recorded case of anyone actually seeing anyone else "on the other side" is that of the witch of Endor who "conjured up" Samuel for Saul. Her surprise makes it clear that she didn't expect Samuel to actually "come up", demonstrating that all of her witchcraft of the past had been, as you suggest, merely demonic activity masquerading as necromancy (see the link: Did the witch of Endor really conjure up the spirit of Samuel?). My view of what scripture has to say on this subject is thus completely in agreement with yours, namely, this is impossible, and those who claim to be able to do it are lying (and may be in league with unclean spirits).
You can also find more about these issues at the link:
Demon Possession (in SR 4)
Hope this is of some help.
In the One whom we see clearly in heaven with the eyes of faith, our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ.