Question #1:
I am reading A History of the Christian Church and I really feel that
Walker or whoever wrote these parts I am reading either is not good at
explaining these Christological controversies, or maybe no one really
understood what was going on (or the writer didn't). I don't understand
the majority of who believed what and what this definition means. I keep
going to wiki, and I actually kind of trust wiki more, which makes me
think not well of this book. Am I wrong? Even in one of the wiki
articles the descendants of the those groups were like 'yeah us modern
iterations of those churches see that there was never a real
disagreement in one of the old conflicts of terminology [or whatever it
was...I am using one example]' and I think 'well if you don't understand
yourselves, even after thousands of years, I don't know how I am
supposed to.'
Feel free to tell me I am wrong lol
Response #1:
Walker is a "rite of passage" for seminary students. I had to read it. My dad
(who went to a Presbyterian seminary in the 1930s had to read it). And pretty
much all of my colleagues and I who read it back in the day had issues with it.
But it is a very good secular treatment based on a pretty low view of
inspiration and faith (IMHO). That is not all bad because it is dealing with the
history of the church-visible, after all, NOT the actual Church of Jesus Christ,
i.e., genuine believers. Only our Lord knows the true history of the Church.
What is not covered in the New Testament, i.e., what we know from later writers,
is not inspired, obviously . . . or maybe not so obviously, because most
believers even many pastors-teachers seem to confuse the two "histories" from
time to time. To put it another way, with a very few exceptions, the most
important Christians in any of the Church eras from the close of the canon
onward until today are not even known about by "history". We have no idea what
was going on in, say, the Thessalonian church in the generation after the
apostles, even though those believers had received great plaudits from the
greatest apostle himself. And while we know that the next generation "abandoned
their first love" (Rev.2:4), meaning they let down on spiritual growth, there
must have been some who earned the three crowns and some who did exceptionally
well, if not at Thessolonica, then elsewhere in the newly converted world
(Rome?).
These believers are lost to secular history . . . but NOT to the true history of
the actual Church which will be revealed at the judgment seat of Christ. That
should be of great encouragement to every Christian today. As I have often
remarked, if there were an encyclopedic history of "Christianity" written today,
even by putative believers, I dare say neither Curt Omo's
Bible Academy nor Ichthys (nor
any of our class of comrades nor our mentor nor his followers) would likely even
rate a footnote. I don't care a fig about that, mind you and I have a better
hope for the judgment seat of Christ. The real Christian life and genuine
Christian ministry is not about publicity or celebrity or numbers or "profile".
It is about genuine spiritual growth, progress and production with which the
Lord is pleased. Doing things this "right way", His way, is not the way to make
it into the newspapers, however or into a "church history" such as Walker's.
When it comes to "Christological controversies", that is a good case in point.
The individuals who were involved in these were the high and mighty of the
established church-visible of their day. A pastor-teacher doing his job
somewhere in a small town in the outer reaches of the empire would not be
consulted on such matters even if he had a much better grasp on the truth
through actually reading and paying attention to the Bible than the philosophers
who made the headlines. It is very good for prospective pastor-teachers to know
about these sorts of historical developments, not because they are particularly
edifying, but because anyone taking care of the sheep needs to know something
about the wolves, the hired hands who flee the wolves, and what the sheep have
been exposed to in the past.
In terms, therefore, of what was "really involved" in these controversies, we
only know about them because writings by some involved and/or by "church
historians" of the distant past (like Eusebius) wrote about them but after the
fact. We/you are free to read those sources directly if Walker (or any other
church-visible historian) is not to one's taste. But don't expect edification
either way. Regardless of what these synods said and did, the truth has always
been the truth, and the truth is clear enough for anyone reading the Bible and
for any teaching studying and teaching the Bible in the Spirit.
As I say, these things are "good to know" at least in general terms, but they
certainly don't reflect what was really going on the hearts of positive
Christians who were actually fighting the fight for Jesus Christ at that time
any more than a contemporary history of this sort would reflect what is really
going on in your heart or in mine.
If you have a specific question about one of the points involved (you only
voiced a very general dissatisfaction in your email), do feel free to ask me.
In Jesus,
Bob L.
Question #2:
Thanks for the professional eye! (I mean it means more to me that YOU
say that).
Real quick: I know there are published works that have Ancient Greek
famous works in the original language. But is there like any collections
of letters in the Ancient Greek? I am just trying to find something that
would be close to demonstrating how the common person would have talked
and thought.
Response #2:
When I write a formal letter to someone, it's not the same way I would talk to them face to face. Compare Paul's reporting of the some of the Corinthians reactions to his epistles:
For his letters, they say, are weighty and powerful, but his bodily presence is weak, and his speech contemptible.
2nd Corinthians 10:10 NKJV
And John to his congregation:
Having many things to write to you, I did not wish to do so with paper and ink;
2nd John 1:12a NKJV
As to non-fictional letters, we have the New Testament epistles, of
course, and the apostolic fathers (like the letters of Polycarp, e.g.).
But while there are a great many classical Latin letters which are
genuine correspondence (Cicero's alone goes to many volumes and the
letters of Pliny the Younger contains some of the earliest secular
references to the Christians), most of what we have in Greek which is
literary is also fictional (e.g., letters of Plato, Demosthenes,
Euripides, etc.), by unknown authors. Writing fictional letters to and
from famous people was a literary trope in that time.
There are plenty of genuine, non-literary letters on papyrus from Egypt,
but these are not that helpful if one wants to know "how people spoke
Greek" in, e.g., the first century, because of their provenance, later
date, and the people who wrote them (generally Egyptians who spoke Greek
so it would be a little like trying to figure out how people spoke
English in the US during the Civil War by reading contemporary
correspondence from people in present day Singapore).
Here are some links to collections of letters:
Greek Fictional Letters, by C.D.N. Costa
Greek and Latin Letters, by M.B. Trapp
Letters of Alciphron, Aelian, and Philostratus, by Benner, A. R., and F. H. Fobes
In Jesus,
Bob L.
Question #3:
Thank you! I do see what you are saying. I only found one in print, but
I think I may find the others online. And I bought it even though I have
a lot in credit card debt. I do not trust that these books I buy now
will be available later. I don't even trust the books I physically have
now will be available later, but they are very dense and high level (in
my opinion) and I can only take in so much at a time.
And I was thinking as I bought it, this is like other Americans who rack
up debt buying new video games, except I am doing it for books to learn
Greek to read the NT. Not to bash anyone or anything. Just I remembered
that passage in Luke 16 about the shrewd manager and thought maybe I was
being cunning in a good way like that.
One more thing, but I think it is encouraging! I read a story recently
about newborn twin premature babies in 1995 (Brielle and Kyrie); one was
dying and the doctors did not think she would make it. And a nurse
placed them together in one incubator. And the sister put her arm around
the other and the weaker instantly stabilized. Called The Hug That Saved
Life. I just bring this up because the Bible talks about encouraging
others, and I think a lot of people might think it doesn't really matter
that we say hi or hug, but you never know just how much you impact
someone's life just by saying hi or giving them a hug. Maybe this would
help the ICHTHYS community? Or not. idk.
Please do take care of yourself!
Response #3:
That is very encouraging! I will save the email.
If I'd known you were going to spend money on any of these books I would
have looked for them cheaper ABE or 1/2 priced books for you (mostly, I
get my books from the library or if ours doesn't have what I need,
through inter-library loan). I bought a great many books when I was
younger. Mostly it's the reference books I don't regret. Most of the
commentaries are just taking up space.
In Jesus,
Bob L.
Question #4:
Hi Robert, hope things are well with you. I am praying for your
situation. Keep me informed
I have been reading Ichthys and when I read something somewhere else I
search Ichthys for any information on the subject. You have sparse
mentions regarding the above subject [Church Fathers] but I have
questions regarding why the immediate post apostolic church fathers
(such as Apostle John's student Polycarp) believed there was no
forgiveness or ONE possible forgiveness for serious post baptismal sins
or those committed wilfully. See reference below [internet article
omitted]
Yet today the teaching is that if we authenticity repent, confess and
forsake those sins there is. ?? Wouldn't a disciple of an apostle know
what was taught ad opposed to the prevailing opinion today? According to
them, there is virtually no chance of forgiveness and restoration for
anyone who commits anything other than a minor sin of ignorance but
certainly no forgiveness for any that were serious or intentional after
baptism. How could Polycarp believe this and be wrong if he was a
student of John the apostle? Doesn't that seem like our belief of no
unforgivable sin is seriously wrong today, 1900 years later?
Response #4:
Re: "You have sparse mentions regarding the above subject [Early church and immediate post apostolic fathers]" for good reason. Nothing they say was inspired by the Holy Spirit, any more than a book of sermons you might pick up at a Christian book store today. What I do have about these individuals can be found at the following links:
Key to understanding the period you're referring to is the section in CT
2A on the first of the seven churches of Revelation, Ephesus (at
the link). This first, post-apostolic generation immediately lost
it's "first love", that is, love for the truth, with the result that the
understanding of the Bible which the apostles possessed the men who
actually wrote the NT largely vanished almost immediately, and it has
taken the better part of 2,000 years to recover it. If you don't believe
that, all you need to do is read an epistle of, e.g., Paul, then read
any work by any apostolic father or early church father it's apples
and oranges.
In fact, what I would counsel you to do is NOT to read books ABOUT these
people, but read what they actually say. I have read the letters of
Polycarp and would not in any way sign off on what this "expert" is
saying. Here's a link to where you can find them translated into
English: Early Christian
Documents.
We who belong to Jesus Christ, we who are believers in Him, believe His
Word, the written Word of Him who is the Living Word of God. We believe
what is in the Bible regardless even of what our ears hear or eyes see
or feelings feel or anxious thoughts think. How much less then should we
put any stock whatsoever in the opinions of an unbelieving (most likely)
scholar who is giving us his private interpretation of the writings of
someone thousands of years ago who was also not inspired by the Spirit
to write whatever he wrote either?
It seems to me that you are searching for things that might be able to
undermine your faith and disrupt your peace. Rather, it seems to me, you
should be reading and studying and believing and applying things that
will build up your faith and produce spiritual growth that is the only
way to having the peace Jesus promises us in this life.
"Peace I leave with you, My peace I give to you; not as the world gives do I give to you. Let not your heart be troubled, neither let it be afraid."
John 14:27 NKJV
Then He said to Thomas, Reach your finger here, and look at My hands; and reach your hand here, and put it into My side. Do not be unbelieving, but believing.
John 20:27 NKJV
I do appreciate your prayers, my friend! Things are still hanging in the
balance here but I'm trusting the Lord to work it all out together for
good.
In Him,
Bob L.
Question #5:
Thanks for the links, I will read them.
I guess when I searched in Ichthys under names it just sent me to
letters between you and others mentioning those names. I was actually
reading about the early church 'fathers' in an article when I came
across that issue. It didn't make sense to me how a direct student of
John's taught something about post baptismal forgiveness that is
radically different from what is taught today. I don't see how he could
get that if he didn't get it from the apostle when he was taught
directly by him. ? How would that happen?
I will read the links
Thanks Robert
Response #5:
On Polycarp, I checked three English translation and there seems to be
no mention of baptism or anything related thereto in his extent
writings. I also checked the TLG (Thesaurus
Linguae Graecae), and the morpheme bap- doesn't occur so
this is not just a question of mis-translation). So, again, before we
worry about "what he taught" and how/why that might be radically
different from what, e.g., John taught, let's try to find out what he
actually taught not what some third party says he taught.
Give me a passage and we'll discuss it.
In Jesus,
Bob L.
Question #6:
This was the article I read [omitted]
Response #6:
Here is the only mention of Polycarp in the article:
At Chapter III of his Epistle to the Philippians, Ignatius of Antioch shortly before AD 107 held that repentance from sins committed after baptism both is possible and reinstates the offender in the church. Chapter XI of the Epistle of Ignatius' friend Polycarp to the same congregation, written almost immediately afterwards, expresses the same beliefs.
The article says nothing at all about Polycarp's teachings. As far
Ignatius is concerned, author merely suggests that forgiveness is
possible according to him (maybe he read the Bible); as the others
mentioned in the article, the value of many of these writings (like the
Didache) is highly dubious. One of the problems with "church
history", especially in (but not limited to) the early centuries of the
Church Age, is that we have very little, and what we have is possibly
not reflective of what was really going on in THE Church (that is,
actual believers who did not "make history"). And I dare say, anyone who
wanted to do a synopsis of Protestant trends in the church-visible over
the last thirty years would probably scour magazines like Christianity
Today or Charisma or Sojourners. This would give a picture of major
groups and denominations, but you'd not find a single mention of
Ichthys, e.g., or my friend Curt Omo's
Bible Academy. So,
IMHO, what survives to make it to the history books is not the same as
what's in the God's books of heaven. Praise the Lord for that!
In Jesus,
Bob L.
Question #7:
Can you tell me if monophytism believed that the Lord's divinity and
humanity were mixed in one nature, or if they believed he only had a
divine nature? Because I have been to a number of different sites and
everyone disagrees. Now I remember why I was frustrated before, because
after thousands of years it still isn't clear (it seems like) what they
were saying they believed.
Is it correct to say Eutychianism believes His divinity absorbed His
humanity so that there was only one nature?
Response #7:
On this question, to be honest, I'm not too concerned about the
controversies in the church-visible, not today and not centuries ago.
When you say, "after thousands of years it still isn't clear (it seems
like) what they were saying they believed", probably that's because 1)
these people weren't really clear in their own thinking and, 2) we have
limited information surviving about them; and most importantly, 3) what
they came up with was wrong.
When it comes to "what it is correct to say . . .", therefore, about any
of these positions, we also have to remember that the actual source
material from this early church era is small, and really what we are
mostly dealing with is scholars (who are mostly not believers) parsing
small references and trying to explain them (in this case, records of
the church councils which condemned Eutyches and later references in the
church fathers based mainly on these). This sort of thing is important,
if it is at all important, for prospective pastors who should have some
knowledge of past heresies in order to better recognize modern close
equivalents when they arise.
That which has been is what will be,
That which is done is what will be done,
And there is nothing new under the sun.
Ecclesiastes 1:9 NKJV
It's pretty clear what the Bible actually says about this important
subject (see BB 4A: Christology; and also
BB 1: Theology). The classical definition to
which I subscribe is that Jesus is God and man, having taken on true
humanity so that now He is one person with two natures, human and
divine.
In Jesus,
Bob L.
Question #8:
Hi Dr Luginbill,
It is just that a whole slew of chapters in The History of the Christian
Church go on and on about things like that and I was trying to
understand. But your explanation does help. Also it seems hinted at in
that a number of times they would have a council to clarify wording so
as to bring groups back together (successfully or not), but it seems
like they were not even clear back then (in that they needed councils
after the fact to clarify (or attempt to).
[omitted]
Have a good week!
Response #8:
My issue with church history is that it focuses on councils and the
like, "important people and important organizations", which, if today's
situation provides any guide, were the least likely to be genuine
believers doing what the Lord wanted them to do.
If someone were writing a history of the "church" a hundred years from
now and had a chapter on the USA in the early 21st century, they would
focus on political stances taken by denominations and give as evidence
what happened at major denominational meetings. They would not have a
clue about the true history of the Church (capital "c") of Jesus Christ.
But we will get THAT report from our Lord directly at His judgment seat
on that great day to come.
In Jesus
Bob L.
p.s., I wouldn't worry about songs, not even hymns: people who write
lyrics don't have any special insight into anything usually less than
the average person.
Question #9:
Your explanation of what is really going on (when they look at bits of
evidence to put together history) and my own observation that it seems
like even they at the time were not clear in each other's mind might
point that way anyway. On another note I read that the best way to
recognize counterfeit is to study the original/the true one, and not
other counterfeits, so I will be careful of time-sinks like this.
Anyway, have a good one!
Response #9:
Yes, it's easy to get sucked into these rabbit-holes on the internet!
See then that you walk circumspectly, not as fools but as wise, redeeming the time, because the days are evil.
Ephesians 5:15-16 NKJV
Question #10:
Good morning,
I was sick yesterday so it was a day of literally nothing. Which I hate,
but it is what it is.
It is really irritating reading Walker in his history book because it
really seems he does not like Christianity. Some of the stuff he says is
just (to me), fantastical thinking. Like he says this must have been and
that must of been but I get the sense he is guessing because he doesn't
explain how he could know that. (Like how he claims the church doctrine
came to be in some places). I see people who just believe whatever an
academic authority tells them, but that is an anathema to me. Anyway I
am nearing the end of the Text crit book, and Metzger also says
something to make me think he isn't a believer. So, that is a bit
something. I guess there is the silver lining that the bias isn't
towards a certain Christian denomination.
Response #10:
Sorry to hear you are under the weather! Prayers for a quick recovery.
Re: Walker and Metzger, I had the same reaction when I read them in seminary.
There seems to be something about academicians which is fundamentally opposed to
accepting the supernatural, a big handicap for those who are writing on biblical
subjects! Of course there are also nowadays some institutions which are
evangelical or charismatic based, etc., but those within seem to be allergic to
serious academic pursuit. There may be a middle ground (there should be), but it
is very hard to find out there. We have to invent that ourselves . . . by
following the Holy Spirit and the scriptures while not failing to be
professional instead of emotional.
In Jesus,
Bob L.
Question #11:
Hi Dr Luginbill,
Okay I was reading where you said most people don't know about Charles
Hodge. I don't know who that is. But I don't recognize that name outside
of ICHTHYS even though I do know some of the early preachers (like
during the Awakenings in the US), and now have some idea of the ones
through general Christian history. But still nothing on him outside
ICHTHYS. So I went to Chat Ai to ask how I can find out who the
significant theologians were. And it recommended an expensive four
volume encyclopedia. There is also an online version, but it has nothing
on Hodge either. Where would one learn about him and the other figures?
I just realized this focuses only on Christianity up to 600 CE, and wow
four volumes for only the first 6 centuries!!
But anyway, do you have a recommendation of a source that would have
theologians like Charles Hodge?
Respectfully,
Response #11:
On Hodge, he was dean (?) of Princeton school of Theology / Seminary (I
believe), back when there were believers there. He wrote a systematic theology
which I have (and have occasionally used). It's very much apologetic and aimed
at 19th century attacks on faith (for spiritual growth purposes, you'd be better
off reading the Basics Series at
Ichthys). Link to free
access.
On the encyclopedia, Brill is an obscenely expensive press. I wouldn't want to
have them be billing my credit card monthly for the right to use the
encyclopedia. I also doubt that there are any believers who contributed to it.
So I can't believe it'd be worth it. Now I haven't actually used this one. I do
have the "Oxford Dictionary of the Christian Church" which is a good
reference work for secular information about the historical church-visible, but
only God knows the really important things that have happened over the years
with His people. Almost none of that will ever make it into a book this side of
heaven but it is all in HIS books.
Don't know if I've given you this link before or not, but here is the best
multi-volume "Church History" ever written and it has it's "issues" too. Free
online at the link: Schaff's
History of the Christian
Church.
In Jesus,
Bob L.
Question #12:
Hi Dr Luginbill,
Thanks for all of your help!
PS: And thanks for the wonderful resource that is ICHTHYS!
Response #12:
My pleasure, my friend!
Thanks for your loyalty . . . and for your faith.
In Jesus,
Bob L.
Question #13:
I am still reading the Bible, Bible study, and working on Greek. I also
am slowly working on history. So in that history book by Walker, I got
to Thomas Aquinas. And I was trying to parse it. One thing that stuck
out to me is this idea (assuming I understand right) that salvation is
via love that is created by doing the sacraments (as the Catholic Church
defines them in the manner it defined them). But that isn't in the NT.
That manner of salvation is different from the thief on the cross, or
the theology/soteriology/and processes as defined in the NT. It really
does come down to if you will believe the Pope as the final authority to
start from.
It is also possible I don't understand enough yet. But from where stand
in my reading so far, it looks like the doctrine of how things like
salvation worked were worked out over time by men who were not the pope,
and the pope later accepted it as the truth. But, I would think that if
the pope really does determine the mechanics of salvation, or at least
if it changes (per the last paragraph before this), it would be the
first and foremost concern for the pope to make all that clear. But in
this way it is the opposite. The doctors of the church over time let us
know this vital information and the pope eventually made a pronouncement
later.
Response #13:
I'm no expert on the Roman Catholic church. From what I do know, it's
not really as if they have their "theology" completely homogenized. They
do have a "catechism", but given all the opinions upon which it is based
it is a little like a bucket of whitewash on a huge, tottering wall:
whatever someone / some text (not the Bible, they care little for that)
has had to say, some other person in authority / authoritative text in
their religion has said something different at one time or another. So
I'm not sure you'd ever "understand enough" even if you devoted your
life to it.
It's a privilege to live now and be privy to so much wonderful truth
coming from the Bible itself, easily available to all who want it . . .
which turns out to be very few.
Have a lovely Christmas, my friend!
In Jesus,
Bob L.
Question #14:
Hi Dr L,
I hope you are well and not overburdened.
1) When Herodotus does things like repeat the speeches between Xerxes
and his Uncle, is he making up what they said, or does he somehow know?
I read somewhere that ancient historians would make up the words someone
said (but follow the 'spirit' of it).
2) If this is in the Bible study, then just let me know that, because I
am still going through it. Is it the case that in the first few hundred
years, most individuals did not own Biblical manuscripts, but group
churches did, and they would read aloud (and that there were a lot of
manuscripts circulating)? When did the lay person stop knowing the Bible
verses (in general)-I mean when did the Catholic Church bottleneck the
Bible? Because I think I remember it was a big deal when Martin Luther
translated the Bible and then the masses got it again.
3) Were most people literate in the first few hundred years after His
resurrection, and it just went away (until literacy rose again for the
general person in the 20th century?
I am hoping these are simple easy questions, but if not, I was really
just hoping for an answer to the second. You can direct me to a book
too.
Please take care of yourself,
p.s., They did a movie a while back called "300" of a part of the
Persian invasion, and there is this famous scene that launched a
thousand jokes/memes. The Persian envoy has come to Sparta to get them
to obey Xerxes (if I remember right) and tells them resisting is
madness.
Response #14:
1) Most historians would say that these speeches are made up in the
tradition of doing so that goes back to Homer. But there are times when
we know Xenophon for example gave the speech himself or Thucydides heard
the actual speech himself (and sometimes maybe Herodotus too). So I
don't think there's a hard and fast fits-all answer on this one.
Thucydides tells us that he doesn't produce them word for word but gives
us "the gist" of what "needed to be said" (lots of speculation about
what that means). Here's a link to an article by a guy named
Luginbill on that:
"The Letter of
Nicias: Document or Fiction?", in Athenaeum 103/2 (2015) 26-52.
2) Lots of ins and outs involved here, and unfortunately we can only
answer in generalities. Mss. were expensive, even if only written on
papyrus rather than vellum. And "books" as we know them (scrolls before
the invention of the codex) only come in somewhere in the late 2nd and
3rd century at the earliest. Before that it would be a case of having a
copy of, e.g., Romans. Since we have such a wealth of evidence
(Metzger's book is good on all this: The Text of the New Testament), you
can bet that having as much of the Bible as possible was a priority
early on for individuals and especially for churches. For trends in the
church visible, see
CT 2A; the era of "Sardis" (12th cent.) is when things go completely
corrupt. "Church history" is written about the newsmakers, not about the
believers who were trying to do what was right, so we are only guessing
about many of these things.
3) Literacy in the ancient world is an issue that has been in hot debate
for many years; the evidence suggests that it was widespread but not as
nearly universal as is the case today; precise time and place has much
to do with answering that question with anything like a percentage
(here's one of many current titles: "Literacy and Orality in Ancient
Greece" by R. Thomas; haven't read that or this next one, but I like
the main author: "Literacy in the Roman World" by Mary Beard et
al.).
On the 300, when the movie came out some students asked me if it was
historically accurate; my response, "Well, there were 300
Spartans."
In Jesus,
Bob L.
Question #15:
Metzger says the codex came in at the end of the first century or early
2nd century, but this isn't that far off from the 3rd century
considering we are discussing things from so long ago, right? (Maybe
there is a bit of unknowability to the exact century?)
On the new leaf for Hebrews, I am a little confused on the argument
about the old law via angels vs the new being superior due to the Lord
delivering. Because you seem to say those angels were the Lord. Is it
like this: you are saying the Lord in human form delivering it directly
to the apostles and affirming via miracles (and I suppose giving
directly via the Holy Spirit (special giftings and writing it on our
hearts) is superior to the Lord giving it to Moses to give to Israel
(because it was a messenger to mediator to them)?
If I could ask you one more question: Why is it γαρ and ουν are
translated sometimes but untranslated other times?
Response #15:
It was somewhere in that time frame. For our purposes, it was after the
first generations of the Church Age had died off.
On Hebrews, the reality is that it was Jesus Christ as the Angel of the
Lord who spoke with Moses, not "angels" in general as the religious
community of Paul's day wrongly assumed. He uses that wrong assumption
to refute their position generally. If you are referring to the
statement later on " the One so far superior to the angels of the Law",
since I say also "Gnostic contrivance" I was hoping this would be
sufficient to make clear that the former phrase meant "as Paul's
misguided contemporaries saw things", but since you noticed this, I'll
add that in.
Greek almost always connects one sentence to another with a conjunction
to make the relationship clear between the two. In English we are loath
to do this too much, so that always translating, e.g., the particles
men / de as "on the one hand, on the other hand" over and
over again would make a translation unreadable for English speakers.
Wishing you a good week ahead, my friend!
In Jesus,
Bob L.
Question #16:
Hi Dr L,
1) When in Metzger it says that a text dates to a certain time, is it
saying literally that physical text (which may be a copy..etc), or that
the original text (not that literal physical document itself, but its
predecessor) dates to that time?
2) How do they know?
3) Is there a history book on how the early believers were treated in
the first few centuries after the Lord's resurrection? I am almost done
with the Ancient History book by Starr, and it seems to talk only a
little (and not clearly about it)? I do have A History of the Christian
Church by Walker, et al, in the wings, so if that covers it, then
nevermind.
Thank you for helping me understand.
Respectfully,
Response #16:
1/2) Correct. These dates mentioned by M. are the dates when the
document/copy in question were produced, not the dates of composition of
the original texts upon which the codices/mss. or papyri were based. The
dates of the physical manuscripts are determined by a variety of
methods, including the material upon which they were written, the
provenance of their production, the place of their discovery, the
handwriting, etc. It's not a perfect science but with so much material
to work with not just biblical but of course everything Classical too
when it comes to this particular issue experts have become pretty good
at this.
3) There is virtually no direct evidence on this subject outside of the
Bible. Here is where I treat the Church eras (in
CT 2B); most everything else is later speculation, e.g., Eusebius
(there are a few primary sources, some of which are covered in the prior
link;
here's a link to a site that contains some of the more prominent
ones). In addition to Walker,
Schaff's is
much more extensive; volume 2 is what you want; some also in v.3 at the
link for an online version.
In Jesus,
Bob L.
Question #17:
Hi Dr L,
1) I am still on Metzger's Text of the New Testament. I am at the part
detailing the messed-up-ness of the Textus Receptus. And I googled if
the NKJV was based on the Textus Receptus, even after all that history
still in the present, and it is. And I just feel kind of frustrated. I
have been trying to find a 1984 NIV, but is there another version you
recommend?
2) Also, as I see all these different publications of editions based on
the ancient manuscripts, why was Martin Luther publishing the scriptures
such a big deal. I mean you almost want to say to the Catholic
Authorities, "if that is upsetting, you have much bigger fish in all
these other publications and editions, don't you?" Was it just that he
was labeled 'public enemy' so to speak?
3) A while back you mentioned The Early Versions of the New Testament:
Their Origin, Transmission, and Limitations by Metzger. If you know off
the top of your head, is this version much different from this one I am
on (The Text of the New Testament)? I might be interested in more
details on the early Ancient Greek manuscripts, does it go into that?
The blurb doesn't really say anything different from the one I have. But
please don't feel like you need to do extra work and find out.
Respectfully,
Response #17:
1) NKJV is not a bad version. When it comes to problems of a serious
nature in the text of the NT (every version uses the same OT), this is
generally speaking a question of false interpolations and you're
probably already familiar with the main ones (here's
a link). I'm a believer in multiple versions. I did find this used
copy of what looks to be an OK copy of the 1984 NIV at ABE (at
the link). When it comes to reading, I read NIV and also
occasionally used to listen to KJV. I read individual passages of NKJV
and other versions on-line (favorite site for that:
Blue Letter Bible at the
link). Somewhere I have my Sunday school copy of the RSV.
2) You'd have to know the RCs. The Bible contradicts absolutely
everything they teach and all of their underlying principles of
organization and practice. No doubt the powers that be at that time
thought, "boy, if the laity ever actually got hold of a Bible they could
read, we'd be in big trouble!" As it is, of course, most people in that
organization don't care about the truth a bit otherwise they wouldn't
stay there. So they are even less concerned with what the Bible says
than Laodicean Protestants.
3) The 'Versions' book is just that: it's not about the mss. in Greek.
It's about, e.g., the various translations of the Bible in antiquity, as
in the Syriac, Coptic, Latin Vulgate, etc., etc. So it wouldn't be of
much help for the purposes you seem to be interested in. Some people
feel that these early witnesses are good for textual criticism, but in
my view and experience they are not very much use at all since 1) they
have their own textual problems, and 2) we have so many original
language witnesses which predate all of them.
Hope you're having a good week!
In Jesus,
Bob L.
Question #18:
On #2, what I was meaning to say is that when I read Metzger, he goes
through that there were so many Latin manuscripts before the Vulgate,
and then so many editions of the Vulgate, and also there continued to be
publishings of the Bible (such as via the Polyglot Bible) before Martin
Luther did his Thesis. So was it that all of these originals and
publishings and editions were only in the hands of scholars?
Ok I made a mistake, the Polyglot was 3 years after the 95 Thesis. But
still, my original point stands that there was all this material all the
way up to and after him. So the only reason I can think of that the
Catholic Church was upset was that he was challenging their authority
directly.
Response #18:
Laymen didn't read Latin. That was restricted mostly to the clergy and other educated intellectuals (in England in the middle ages a man could avoid the death penalty by proving "right of clergy" if he could prove it by reading something in Latin). What the RC church dreaded was a translation of the Bible in the language of the people whatever language that might be.
It wasn't just a question of authority, in my view, but a fear on their part of the truth coming out. The truth does and did "set free" many believers, but the majority of the RC communicants then and certainly now were never interested in the truth in the first place. What the Reformation and the new availability of the truth of scripture, available to be read and also importantly finally being taught, finally did was end the RC church's virtual monopoly. It reminds me of this verse:
"But woe to you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! For you shut up the kingdom of heaven against men; for you neither go in yourselves, nor do you allow those who are entering to go in."
Matthew 23:13 NKJV
I've said a prayer for your health.
In Jesus,
Bob L.
Question #19:
Hi Professor Luginbill,
In the Text of the New Testament, the author mentions that who
translated the rest of the NT for the Vulgate is hotly debated (the four
Gospels are Jerome's). It doesn't seem clear to me what he is saying
right after. He says (right after that the rest is debated) 1) some say
that the work of some other translator came to be circulated as Jerome's
work and 2) the commonly accepted view rests upon the natural
interpretation of what Jerome says about his work. (Both of these are
near verbatim). And then he moves on from the translation/making of the
Vulgate to the transmission of the Vulgate.
So it is that the four Gospels are definitely Jerome's, and the
traditional idea is that the rest is also Jerome's, but scholars now
debate if the rest is actually someone else's translation? Or something
else? This isn't a big deal as I said, I was just wondering if you were
ok to tell me a little.
Please don't feel like you need to look it up or pressured to look it
up, but in case you were going to ask anyway, it is pg 105/106 in
edition 4.
Respectfully,
Response #19:
I don't have the same edition (and can't find it in my older one where
this is referenced), but from what you have said here, I think you have
understood correctly what Metzger is trying to say.
If interested in this subject, his "The Early Versions of the Greek
New Testament" has a very long chapter on the Vulgate. Here's one
short snippet:
". . . at the start of his work he was more exacting than during the latter part of his work. Thus in Matthew he introduces changes which are of no importance which he later neglects." p.353
The Vulgate also has a very convoluted textual history, much more
complicated than the Greek NT. So there is also the question of "did
Jerome write this part" whenever the above comes up.
I'm very happy to hear that you have been able to cope with ____ my
friend
Keeping you in my daily prayers and here's hoping for less overtime
and some time off.
In Jesus,
Bob L.
Question #20:
Dear Brother Bob, hope you are well.
Thanks for sharing your insight on the gift of tongues. Yes, I remember
that in Acts 2, tongues was when the disciples were declaring the Gospel
in various languages but what is happening in a lot of Pentecostal
churches is worship leaders speaking in strange utterances, violating 1
Corinthians 14. There is a lot of deception going on in the church
especially in the Charismatic church. One thing I like about Macarthurs
sermons is his exposition of the text, bringing the linguistic,
cultural, and historical context. I understand that both Hebrew and
Greek are languages that use graphics, (it is not like English). I was
wondering, as you have studied the original languages, which one of your
studies dives more into the Biblical languages? I just finished reading
#15 of 1st Peter, and I like the study, but it seems the emphasis is on
the theme of spiritual growth, (which is very important), but I was
wondering, if you have some studies that explain the meaning of Bible
words?
Thanks Brother Bob,
Response #20:
My pleasure.
In all of my studies, wherever it is important for readers to know how I
got what I got, I explain the Greek or the Hebrew as appropriate. But I
don't go into depth on grammatical points that will mean little to those
who don't know either language. So you'll find some of this in
everything I write, but there's no concentration of it, so to speak.
If you want to know the meanings of specific biblical words and phrases,
there is an index for translations where I
list everything I've translated myself and its location at the link.
There are numerous email postings that talk about the issue of
translation; here's one at the link which will lead to more:
Biblical Languages, Texts and
Translations XII. By the way, the most recent email posting has a
good deal about the issue as well (link:
Old Testament
Interpretation XX).
The subject index lists some important
words and give references to places at Ichthys these are discussed, such
as "faith, hope and love".
If you have a question about a specific word, I'm happy to answer as
well as to point you to wherever this may have been dealt with
previously.
In Jesus,
Bob L.
Question #21:
Dear Brother Bob, hope you are well.
I opened one of your links and something stood out as you mentioned
tetragrammaton.
I was suddenly wondering if you have done a study of the different names
of God as revealed in Scripture? I've found a lot of confusing
information out there, some people in Hebrew Roots say that the words
God and Lord have pagan origins and that the correct name of God is
Yahuah. They say something about Paleo Hebrew.
When Jesus taught us to pray in Matthew 6, we are to start with "Our
Father", but I was wondering if there is a correct name for God?
Thanks Brother Bob,
Response #21:
Here's one link on names (this info is scattered around the site in
numerous places):
Divine names.
As to "correct names", our Lord Jesus told us to call our heavenly
Father "Father" (Matt.6:9; Lk.11:2) that seems fine to me! Compare:
And because you are sons, God has sent forth the Spirit of His Son into your hearts, crying out, Abba [Hebrew], Father [Greek]!
Galatians 4:6 NKJV
In Jesus,
Bob L.